All Questions: 271-300
271. Where in a neuron are neurotransmitters typically stored before being released into the synaptic cleft?
- A. axon hillock
- B. dendrites
- C. axon terminals
- D. nucleus
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Correct answer: C
Neurotransmitters are stored in small membrane-bound sacs called synaptic vesicles, which cluster in the presynaptic axon terminal. When an action potential arrives, calcium influx triggers vesicle fusion with the presynaptic membrane, releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.
272. A patient reports that lightly brushing their skin with clothing causes significant pain, even though the touch itself is not normally painful. This phenomenon is known as:
- A. hypoesthesia
- B. allodynia
- C. analgesia
- D. radiculopathy
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Correct answer: B
Allodynia is pain triggered by a stimulus that does not normally cause pain, such as light touch, mild pressure, or gentle temperature changes. It often occurs in conditions where the nervous system becomes sensitized and misinterprets non-painful input as painful.
273. Ketamine is thought to achieve its antidepressant effects primarily through the following mechanism (although this alone does not fully explain its antidepressant capabilities):
- A. inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin
- B. stimulating GABA release in the hippocampus
- C. blocking NMDA glutamate receptors
- D. stimulating GABA release in the hippocampus
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Correct answer: C
Ketamine and norketamine act as antagonists at the NMDA receptor, which means that they block the receptor and inhibit activity there. This action alone does not seem to be capable of fully explaining ketamine's antidepressant effects, but it is the main mechanism of the drug, and it may lead to downstream effects (e.g., new synapse formation) that help treat depression.
274. Which of the following neurodegenerative diseases is most strongly linked to being directly inherited from a parent?
- A. Huntington's disease
- B. Parkinson's disease
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
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Correct answer: A
Huntington’s disease is the classic example of an inherited neurodegenerative disorder. It is caused by a mutation in the HTT gene, and anyone who inherits this mutation from a parent will eventually develop the disease.
275. What is typically the main symptom of trigeminal neuralgia?
- A. Progressive facial muscle weakness
- B. Persistent numbness in the cheek and jaw
- C. Sudden, severe, stabbing facial pain
- D. Difficulty swallowing and speaking
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Correct answer: C
Trigeminal neuralgia, also known as tic douloureux, is a disorder of cranial nerve V, the trigeminal nerve. The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve for the face; it also controls motor functions of the jaw like biting and chewing. Trigeminal neuralgia is a pain disorder that causes sudden intense pain, typically on one side of the face.
276. Which of the following is considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
- A. blunted emotion
- B. auditory hallucinations
- C. difficulty experiencing pleasure
- D. memory deficits
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Correct answer: B
Positive symptoms of schizophrenia involve the development of a behavior or thought pattern that isn’t normally present, such as hallucinations and/or delusions. Negative symptoms involve the loss of a normal function, and cognitive symptoms are those that affect someone’s ability to think clearly.
277. These retinal cells carry visual information out of the eye, forming the optic nerve in the process:
- A. photoreceptor cells
- B. bipolar cells
- C. ganglion cells
- D. amacrine cells
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Correct answer: C
The ganglion cells of the retina receive signals from other retinal neurons and their axons bundle together to form the optic nerve, which carries visual information from the brain.
278. Bell's palsy is characterized by facial weakness or paralysis and results from dysfunction of which cranial nerve?
- A. CN III
- B. CN VII
- C. CN X
- D. CN XI
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Correct answer: B
Bell’s palsy is a disorder that results from the dysfunction of cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve. It involves weakness or paralysis, typically on one side of the face. The cause of Bell's palsy is not clear, and Bell’s palsy is only diagnosed when there is not another identifiable cause of the facial paralysis (e.g., Lyme disease, trauma).
279. When a neuron is depolarized to threshold, which event below is primarily responsible for the rapid depolarization of the action potential?
- A. Voltage-gated sodium channels open
- B. Voltage-gated potassium channels open
- C. Sodium-potassium pump activity increases
- D. Chloride channels open
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Correct answer: A
Once threshold is reached, voltage-gated sodium channels rapidly open, allowing Na⁺ ions to rush into the neuron. This inward sodium current drives the depolarization phase of the action potential.
280. To test a patient’s corneal reflex, a doctor touches the patient’s right cornea with a piece of cotton. What response indicates a healthy corneal reflex?
- A. neither eye blinks
- B. only the patient's right eye blinks
- C. only the patient's left eye blinks
- D. both eyes blink
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Correct answer: D
The corneal reflex is used clinically to test the integrity of the trigeminal and facial nerves and related structures, typically by touching the cornea with a piece of cotton. The healthy response to touching one cornea would be that both eyes would blink, but damage to the trigeminal or facial nerves or other related structures may cause a deficit in the reflex.
281. Which of the following is a typical effect of lower motor neuron damage?
- A. spasticity
- B. over-responsive reflexes (hyperreflexia)
- C. weakness or paralysis
- D. increased muscle tone (hypertonia)
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Correct answer: C
Lower motor neuron lesions often cause weakness or paralysis due to direct damage to the neurons that innervate skeletal muscle. This is frequently accompanied by decreased muscle tone and reduced or absent reflexes.
282. Which type of glial cell provides the primary immune defense of the brain?
- A. astrocyte
- B. oligodendrocyte
- C. microglia
- D. ependymal cell
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Correct answer: C
Microglia are the brain’s resident immune cells. They act as macrophage-like phagocytes, clearing debris, pathogens, and damaged neurons while regulating inflammation.
283. The ventral tegmental area and substantia nigra are the two main dopamine-producing areas of the brain. What part of the brainstem are they found in?
- A. midbrain
- B. pons
- C. medulla oblongata
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Correct answer: A
The ventral tegmental area and substantia nigra are both found in the midbrain. They produce the majority of dopamine used by the brain, and are involved in processes such as movement, motivation, reward, and much more.
284. A person experiences spinal cord damage and afterward experiences paralysis on the right side of their body below the area of damage. Which tract was likely damaged to cause the paralysis?
- A. spinothalamic tract
- B. corticospinal tract
- C. dorsal column
- D. spinoreticular tract
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Correct answer: B
The corticospinal tract carries voluntary motor commands from the brain to the body. Damage to this tract in the spinal cord can cause paralysis on the same side of the body below the injury.
285. Which of the following structures is part of the diencephalon?
- A. cerebral cortex
- B. hippocampus
- C. cerebellum
- D. pineal gland
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Correct answer: D
The pineal gland is part of the epithalamus, a major structure in the diencephalon. The main function of the pineal gland is the secretion of melatonin, a hormone that is best known for its role in regulating circadian rhythms.
286. Schwann cells myelinate axons in the peripheral nervous system; how many internodes does each Schwann cell create?
- A. one
- B. three
- C. twelve
- D. the number is too high to estimate accurately
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Correct answer: A
In the peripheral nervous system, each Schwann cell wraps around a single segment of one axon, forming one internode of myelin. This is in contrast to oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system, which can extend processes to myelinate multiple internodes across different axons.
287. Someone asks you to close your eyes and places something in your hand. By feeling the object, you are able to identify that it is a key without looking at it. Which neural pathway is primarily responsible for detecting the key’s shape and contours so you can recognize it by touch?
- A. spinothalamic tract
- B. dorsal columns-medial lemniscus
- C. corticospinal tract
- D. spinocerebellar tract
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Correct answer: B
The dorsal columns-medial lemniscus is the main pathway for carrying fine touch, vibration, and proprioceptive information from the body to the brain. It allows you to discriminate shapes, textures, and contours—like feeling a key in your hand and identifying it without seeing it.
288. The neurons of the olfactory nerve (cranial nerve I) travel between which two structures?
- A. Olfactory bulb and piriform cortex
- B. Olfactory bulb and amygdala
- C. Olfactory epithelium and olfactory bulb
- D. Olfactory epithelium and optic chiasm
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Correct answer: C
The sensory neurons of the olfactory nerve originate in the olfactory epithelium of the nasal cavity. Their axons pass through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone and synapse in the olfactory bulb, where second-order neurons carry the information deeper into the brain.
289. The primary somatosensory cortex is located in which of the following regions?
- A. precentral gyrus
- B. postcentral gyrus
- C. superior temporal gyrus
- D. occipital lobe
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Correct answer: B
The primary somatosensory cortex lies in the postcentral gyrus, just posterior to the central sulcus.
290. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are used in the treatment of depression. They act by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase, and as a result they:
- A. Decrease levels of monoamine neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft
- B. Increase the breakdown of monoamine neurotransmitters
- C. Inhibit the breakdown of monoamine neurotransmitters
- D. Block the reuptake of monoamine neurotransmitters
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Correct answer: C
MAOIs block the activity of monoamine oxidase, the enzyme responsible for breaking down serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine in the synapse. This leads to increased availability of these neurotransmitters, which is thought to play a role in antidepressant effects.
291. These arteries supply most of the medial surface of the frontal and parietal lobes:
- A. middle cerebral arteries
- B. posterior cerebral arteries
- C. anterior choroidal arteries
- D. anterior cerebral arteries
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Correct answer: D
The anterior cerebral arteries supply most of the medial surface of the frontal and parietal lobes.
292. Which neurotransmitter is the brain’s primary excitatory transmitter and is involved in signaling at more than half of all synapses in the brain?
- A. glutamate
- B. serotonin
- C. GABA
- D. dopamine
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Correct answer: A
Glutamate is the brain’s main excitatory neurotransmitter. It plays a central role in learning, memory, and overall neural communication. It’s used at more than half of all synapses in the central nervous system.
293. Which specialized structure(s) in the brain’s ventricles is responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
- A. arachnoid villi
- B. blood-brain barrier
- C. choroid plexus
- D. interthalamic adhesion
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Correct answer: C
The choroid plexus is a network of specialized cells inside the brain’s ventricles. It is made up of ependymal cells and a rich network of blood capillaries, which work together to filter blood plasma and secrete CSF.
294. Damage to which of the following brain regions is most likely to produce a language deficit characterized by difficulty producing speech?
- A. Wernicke's area
- B. Broca's area
- C. Primary visual cortex
- D. Cerebellum
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Correct answer: B
Broca’s area is important for language production; damage to it often leads to Broca’s aphasia, where comprehension is relatively preserved but speech is non-fluent, effortful, and halting.
295. Damage to which of the following brain regions is most commonly associated with alien hand syndrome?
- A. corpus callosum
- B. hippocampus
- C. substantia nigra
- D. cerebellum
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Correct answer: A
Although there are a number of areas of the brain that may be damaged in alien hand syndrome, some of the most common variants of the syndrome involve damage to the corpus callosum. When the corpus callosum is damaged, it may impair the ability of the left and right cerebral hemispheres to coordinate movement between limbs, and to inhibit unwanted movements in the alien hand.
296. The posterior horn of the spinal cord primarily contains neurons that deal with:
- A. motor control of skeletal muscle
- B. autonomic regulation of internal organs
- C. sensory processing of touch, pain, and temperature
- D. coordination of balance and posture
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Correct answer: C
The posterior (dorsal) horn contains neurons that receive sensory input from peripheral nerves via the dorsal root, making it the main site for processing somatosensory information such as touch, pain, and temperature.
297. Which of the following structures is not generally considered part of the limbic system?
- A. amygdala
- B. hippocampus
- C. hypothalamus
- D. cerebellum
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Correct answer: D
There is a lack of consensus as to what structures should be included in the limbic system, but areas that are often included are the amygdala, cingulate cortex, hippocampus, hypothalamus, septal nuclei, mammillary bodies, prefrontal cortex, certain nuclei of the thalamus, and tracts such as the fornix and medial forebrain bundle. The cerebellum is not generally included.
298. Which structure moves in response to fluid movement in the cochlea, resulting in the conversion of sound vibrations into neural signals?
- A. tympanic membrane
- B. basilar membrane
- C. auditory nerve
- D. oval window
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Correct answer: B
The basilar membrane moves in response to fluid movement in the cochlea. These movement of the basilar membrane bends the stereocilia of hair cells in the organ of Corti, which converts mechanical energy from sound waves into neural signals that the brain interprets as sound.
299. Which of the following is the best description of the telencephalon?
- A. The main connection between the brain and the spinal cord
- B. The posterior part of the brain responsible for balance and coordination
- C. The cerebral hemispheres and a number of subcortical structures
- D. The center region of the brain, which includes the thalamus and hypothalamus
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Correct answer: C
The telencephalon is also known as the cerebrum, and it consists of the largest part of the brain. It contains the cerebral hemispheres, and thus includes the cerebral cortex and a number of other structures lying below it (subcortical structures), along with a variety of important fiber bundles like the corpus callosum.
300. What is the most widely accepted explanation for why the cerebral cortex is extensively folded to form sulci and gyri?
- A. Folding allows for faster communication between distant brain regions
- B. Folding increases the surface area of the cerebral cortex
- C. Folding helps to separate different functional areas of the brain
- D. Folding provides greater protection to deeper brain structures
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Correct answer: B
The most widely accepted explanation for cortical folding is it substantially increases the surface area of the cerebral cortex, allowing more neurons and synaptic connections to fit within the limited volume of the skull.
